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Q: In Matthew 19:9, the exception offered for one to remarry after divorcing is fornication (not adultery). With that in mind, would you define fornication to be synonymous with adultery? To do so would exclude numerous behaviors that would be rightly described as fornication. For example, would you not say that bestiality is fornication and therefore biblical grounds for divorce? A: If we take a closer look at the definition of fornication (PORNIEA in the original language), we will find that it is a very general term and thus includes many different activities. J. H. Thayer offers the following definition: "1) Illicit sexual intercourse; a) adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, intercourse with animals, etc.; b) sexual intercourse with close relatives; c) sexual intercourse with a divorced man or woman." According to Friberg it is "every kind of extramarital, unlawful, or unnatural sexual intercourse." Both these scholars use the English term "intercourse." Such intercourse is defined by Webster as "physical sexual contact between individuals." Three key points are noted in this definition:
The word "fornication" includes every kind of improper and unlawful sexual relations: pre-marital sex (1 Corinthians 7:1, 2); adultery, which is extra-marital sex (Matthew 19:9); homosexuality (Romans 1:26-28); harlotry and prostitution (1 Timothy 1:9, 10); incest (1 Corinthians 5:1); and bestiality (Leviticus 20:15, 16). A spouse can be lawfully put away for these things. Plainly stated, when sexual relations take place between individuals who are not lawfully husband-and-wife, fornication is committed, and the Bible calls it sin. Furthermore, Webster defines fornication as consensual unmarried sex. The significance is that a wife has the right put away her husband if he is a rapist, but a husband has no right to put away his wife if she is a rape victim. The understanding lies in recognizing the distinction between the active and the passive. Since he is performing the action, he commits the fornication. However, since she is being acted upon, giving no consent, she commits no fornication. Adultery (Galatians 5:19, MOICHEIA in the original language) is not synonymous with fornication but is simply the special case of fornication involving married people, or as W. E. Vine puts it, "unlawful intercourse with the spouse of another." When a married person commits fornication, it is adultery. Thus, when Jesus said "except for fornication" as the lawful reason for putting away, that fornication is adultery, since they are married. You could say that all adultery is fornication, but not all fornication is adultery. We would add that not only is fornication the only lawful reason for divorce and remarriage, but it is also the only lawful reason for putting away in the first place, regardless of whether one remarries. A teaching gaining acceptance today is that God does not condemn divorcing for any reason, but you just can't remarry unless the divorce was for fornication. This is false doctrine. Even the putting away alone, if not for the cause of fornication, is sinful. In Matthew 19:6, Jesus said not to separate what God joins together. Likewise, in 1 Corinthians 7:10, 11, Paul states that the word of the Lord is for husbands and wives not to separate or divorce one another. If God tells us not to do a thing, it is sinful to do it. We hope this helps clear things up. It certainly sounds like your reasoning is on the right track. Thanks again for asking. |